I'll let you be on your own with that comparison.
But to your initial question, I care.
ETA - I think there's a misunderstanding - you said in both situations they are being targeted and actually on one of my situations there as a very huge decreasing in the targeting so it's not true that in both circumstances there's equal prevalence of targeting.
And again, if pre-war and post war had equal target prevalence, why was did literally everyone here ignore it per-war?